First question. Adam Smith, Chapter 1, of the dividion of labor. P13-24
We have alrady seen how the division of labor greaty increases the produtive powers of labor wherever it is applied ( for no one would divide labor unless it increase productivity). Smith ends his first chapter with a dicsuccion of the consequences of the dividion of labor and the increase of wealth it brings, He claims, beginning onp.22, paragraph 10, that the “universal opulence” “extends iteself to the lowest rank of the people”? What do you make of his argument? What evidence does he give for believing this? Does the history of humanity from 1776 to 2015 vidicate his argument?
Read the article Adam Smith Wealth of nations and answer queston #1 and #2 (To answer quesiton #2 ,read the chapter 2 P25-30)
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